scriptures when the Greek word properly translated means "for a set period of time" (an age), properly meaning hell has an end? And why are the greek words Hades and Gehenna translated as "hell" in the King James Bible, when Hades simply means the place of all departed souls, good or bad (the other side of the grave), and
Gehenna was just a local trash dump outside of Jerusalem? (Mark 3:29; Jude 1:7)|||The Gospels is based on astro theology. It's based on the changing of the sun and the changes of the Zodiac. It is not based on some man walking around saving people named Jesus. Do research on a man named Jordan Maxwell Astro Theology. He proves by any shadow of doubt that the Gospels are lies based on Astrology not salvation.|||Because it's nothing but an ancient collection of tall tales about eating magic mushrooms and astrology and they had to try to turn it into something it isn't.|||They used eternal because eternal is forever.|||The Greek word 'aionios' is used 71 times in the Greek NT.
66 of those times it means eternal.
only 1 time does it mean age- and it is translated so.
You are wrong!
There is a similar problem with your understanding of hell.
The conclusion is simple- The Learned needs more learning.|||I am not qualified to answer your question, but this link may be of interest. http://www.tentmaker.org/books/GatesOfHe鈥?/a> The word "hell" is, of course, in the creeds and the only way to understand it is in terms of place of the dead. Perhaps Hades sounded too pagan a concept for the Church Fathers. There is also the fact that if body and soul are to be destroyed in the place of torment, there would logically come a point where they would be destroyed, unless the process is to resemble that of the myth of Sisyphus. We cannot really grapple with the issue of whether the departed wait for judgment with everyone else or whether judgment takes place immediately after death, as on dying one moves from time to eternity and presumably one is not conscious of any passage of time.
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